I was talking to a few of my friends here at college on the issues that were discussed in my last post a few days ago and I realized that I was not very clear in what I wanted to say, so here are my modifications. To refresh your (and my) memory, the verses we were discussing:
In the KJV
Matthew 5:31It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: 32But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
In the NIV
31"It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.'32But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.
The difference in these two passages is the translation of the Greek word Porneia. The King James Version translates Porneia as fornication, the NIV translates porneia as marital infidelity.
The Strong's concordance definition of Porneia is as follows:
G4202
πορνεία
porneia
por-ni'-ah
From G4203; harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively idolatry: - fornication.
This is the point where I was unclear, so allow me to clarify: I believe that while the word porneia can mean "Marital Infidelity or Unfaithfulness" (adultery), in the context of the Jewish law, and the rest of the what the Word says about divorce and remarriage, porneia in this setting is refering to premarital sexual activity, and it does not in this case refer to adultery.
Allow me to explain why.
A footnote in my friend's NIV Study Bible states that marital infidelity was a lifestyle of immoral sexual behavior after the marriage. The problem with that is the book of Hosea. Hosea, an OT prophet, was told by God to marry a prostitute. After they were married, Mrs Hosea continued her prostitution, and Hosea was not allowed to divorce her. God said that he had to take her back every time. Now I realize that God was using Hosea to make a point about the Isrealites' unfaithfulness to God, but if anyone should have been allowed to divorce someone based on marital infidelity, it should have been Hosea.
Secondly, Jesus says in Mark 10 and in Luke 16 that divorce and remarriage is a sin and there are no caveats in either of these two passages
This is why I have said that the translators of the NIV have mistranslated the word porneia in this Scripture
As to the comment that people can use this Scripture to defend remarriage after a divorce being baloney, I know people who have done exactly that. They have tried to justify remarriage after a divorce by using this exact Scripture-They failed of course, but this was the Scripture they quoted.
Also allow me to be clear on two more things
One. While I lean towards KJV only, (More and More as I have looked into the thing I am discussing) I am not going to sit here and say that the KJV is the only valid English translation, because I know people who are following God and are commited to Jesus who came to Christ while reading the NIV Bible. God can use whatever and whoever he wants to fulfill His purposes
Two. I am not trying to start a war, or to cause any conflict with these posts. I just simply want to have a lively discussion about all of this, because these are issues we all must think about
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6 comments:
Quick question: Was the footnote from the NIV, or from your friend's version? (I'm asking if it's intrinsic to the translation, or if the publisher put it in there like in a study Bible.)
The footnote I refered to was in My friend's Study Bible. It was not "intrinsic to the translation"
A comment and a question.
"The problem with that is the book of Hosea. Hosea, an OT prophet, was told by God to marry a prostitute."
There is a common phrase of which most Christians are aware, at least in concept: "Others may; you cannot." It applies in many places. God tells individuals, "Others may; you cannot." "Others may eat meat; you cannot." "Others may imbibe alcohol; you cannot." "Others may pursue a regular job; you are going to be a missionary." It's very common and doesn't make Hosea a contradiction to Matt. 19's exception clause unless someone tries to read the exception clause as "You must divorce an unfaithful spouse" (which isn't in there).
The question I have is a little off topic, but could lead back into the original topic. In your understanding, do you understand Matt. 19 and the KJV as saying that there is no cause for remarriage after divorce? In a no-fault world where a spouse divorces and marries another, it is your counsel that the innocent spouse must remain single for the rest of their life? (Note: Even those who had the KJV as their only Bible believed that there was an actual exception clause in Matt. 19.) Is that your view: "No remarriage after divorce ... ever"?
Yes. It is my position that remarriage after divorce is a sin--regardles of whose fault the original divorce was.That may sound harsh, but two things.
First in Psalm 15 David Asks the Lord "LORD, who shall abide in thy tabernacle? who shall dwell in thy holy hill?" (Psalm 15:1) God's answer includes the following "He that sweareth to his own hurt, and changeth not." (Psalm 15:4) The I do's in a wedding ceremony are called vows. You are making an oath before God to be faithful to your spouse for the rest of your life and theirs. God is saying that those who stick to their vows will be blessed. And will in fact abide in God's Holy Hill.
Secondly, Two wrongs never make a right. God's Word will not contradict itself. Divorce is always wrong in God's sight. Now this is not to say that those who are in abusive relationships should stay in them. However, Remarrige after such a divorce is a sin in God's eyes
This is going to sound like a "trick question", but it isn't. How do you correlate "Compassionate Conservative" with "It is my position that remarriage after divorce is a sin" which you yourself admits is "harsh"?
(As I said, it's a question for information, not a question with an agenda. I believe there is an answer, and I believe it might even be an important answer. I'm just wondering if you have one.)
Stan, Thanks for the question. It's a good one. My answer is that true Compassion (love) tells the truth- 1 Corithians 13:6 "[Charity...](agape love) Rejoiceth not in iniquity, but rejoiceth in the truth."
As Christians we are called to tell people the truth about sin and about God's forgiveness. Now we must tell people the truth in Love, because Love without truth is not love, just as truth without love is not truth. In the book of Ezekiel, God tells the prophet in Chapter 3:17-21 Son of man, I have made thee a watchman unto the house of Israel: therefore hear the word at my mouth, and give them warning from me.
18 When I say unto the wicked, Thou shalt surely die; and thou givest him not warning, nor speakest to warn the wicked from his wicked way, to save his life; the same wicked man shall die in his iniquity; but his blood will I require at thine hand.
19 Yet if thou warn the wicked, and he turn not from his wickedness, nor from his wicked way, he shall die in his iniquity; but thou hast delivered thy soul.
20 Again, When a righteous man doth turn from his righteousness, and commit iniquity, and I lay a stumblingblock before him, he shall die: because thou hast not given him warning, he shall die in his sin, and his righteousness which he hath done shall not be remembered; but his blood will I require at thine hand.
21 Nevertheless if thou warn the righteous man, that the righteous sin not, and he doth not sin, he shall surely live, because he is warned; also thou hast delivered thy soul.
This is why we must tell the truth even it is harsh. We tell the truth because God requires it of us. We are to love Him and His ways above all else. Telling the truth is not always easy, but it is always necessary.
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